Yaocelotl
:D
+221|6908|Keyboard

-=raska=- wrote:

Fenris_GreyClaw wrote:

thread done.
no thread is not done, thread is right.

if not, prove that the statements (verified by mathematicians) on this site are false. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/0.99
I doubt he can do it
jonsimon
Member
+224|6753
(.9~)!=1. It is arbitrarily close to one. And the difference is arbitrarily close to 0. If that's all you wanted to prove, gg. End of story.

Last edited by jonsimon (2006-11-29 16:20:20)

Onionpaste
Member
+6|6641

jonsimon wrote:

(.9~)!=1. It is arbitrarily close to one. And the difference is arbitrarily close to 0. If that's all you wanted to prove, gg. End of story.
That's not what I wanted to prove.  I DID prove that .9999~ is EXACTLY 1, not arbitrarily close to 1, nor the difference arbitrarily close to 0.

Last edited by Onionpaste (2006-11-29 16:22:03)

-=raska=-
Canada's French Frog
+123|6884|Quebec city, Canada
0.99999 = exactly 1

its 2 symbols meaning 1 number, not 2 different numbers.
Chief_(OwNaGe)
Member
+46|6702

-=raska=- wrote:

also 1/3 = 0.33...
1/3 x 3 = 1
0.33... x 3 = 0.999... = 1
qft

good point...never thought about it that way...i suppose its right then.
Fenris_GreyClaw
Real Хорошо
+826|6778|Adelaide, South Australia

Yaocelotl wrote:

-=raska=- wrote:

Fenris_GreyClaw wrote:

thread done.
no thread is not done, thread is right.

if not, prove that the statements (verified by mathematicians) on this site are false. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/0.99
I doubt he can do it
My brain 'splode.

*dead*
-=raska=-
Canada's French Frog
+123|6884|Quebec city, Canada

jonsimon wrote:

(.9~)!=1. It is arbitrarily close to one. And the difference is arbitrarily close to 0. If that's all you wanted to prove, gg. End of story.
btw I dont understand why you added the factorial at ,9~
Yaocelotl
:D
+221|6908|Keyboard

-=raska=- wrote:

jonsimon wrote:

(.9~)!=1. It is arbitrarily close to one. And the difference is arbitrarily close to 0. If that's all you wanted to prove, gg. End of story.
btw I dont understand why you added the factorial at ,9~
Maybe it's a != or "not equal as"
jonsimon
Member
+224|6753

-=raska=- wrote:

jonsimon wrote:

(.9~)!=1. It is arbitrarily close to one. And the difference is arbitrarily close to 0. If that's all you wanted to prove, gg. End of story.
btw I dont understand why you added the factorial at ,9~
Its not a factorial, it means the boolean function not. So in the context I was using it, != means not equal to.
-=raska=-
Canada's French Frog
+123|6884|Quebec city, Canada

Yaocelotl wrote:

-=raska=- wrote:

jonsimon wrote:

(.9~)!=1. It is arbitrarily close to one. And the difference is arbitrarily close to 0. If that's all you wanted to prove, gg. End of story.
btw I dont understand why you added the factorial at ,9~
Maybe it's a != or "not equal as"
...ok didnt know this symbol. Not equal as is ~. On this thread "~" is used as the symbol of infinity, but usually infinity is the "dead 8".

edit :

jonsimon wrote:

Its not a factorial, it means the boolean function not. So in the context I was using it, != means not equal to.
oh ok... ty then.

Last edited by -=raska=- (2006-11-29 16:31:09)

Onionpaste
Member
+6|6641

Yaocelotl wrote:

-=raska=- wrote:

jonsimon wrote:

(.9~)!=1. It is arbitrarily close to one. And the difference is arbitrarily close to 0. If that's all you wanted to prove, gg. End of story.
btw I dont understand why you added the factorial at ,9~
Maybe it's a != or "not equal as"
If it is, he could always go to his character map and make the symbol understandable eh?  ≠ ftw.
Yaocelotl
:D
+221|6908|Keyboard

Onionpaste wrote:

Yaocelotl wrote:

-=raska=- wrote:


btw I dont understand why you added the factorial at ,9~
Maybe it's a != or "not equal as"
If it is, he could always go to his character map and make the symbol understandable eh?  ≠ ftw.
!= = ≠
-=raska=-
Canada's French Frog
+123|6884|Quebec city, Canada

Onionpaste wrote:

Yaocelotl wrote:

-=raska=- wrote:


btw I dont understand why you added the factorial at ,9~
Maybe it's a != or "not equal as"
If it is, he could always go to his character map and make the symbol understandable eh?  ≠ ftw.
no that means "is not equal to"

~ means "is almost equal to"
Yaocelotl
:D
+221|6908|Keyboard

-=raska=- wrote:

Onionpaste wrote:

Yaocelotl wrote:


Maybe it's a != or "not equal as"
If it is, he could always go to his character map and make the symbol understandable eh?  ≠ ftw.
no that means "is not equal to"

~ means "is almost equal to"
Fail, ~ means long string of same numbers
[Spec]-=Colonel_Zero=-
Member
+21|6620|None ya
uuhhhhh this was a very random topic. simple algebra though.......I think....
Onionpaste
Member
+6|6641

-=raska=- wrote:

Yaocelotl wrote:

-=raska=- wrote:


btw I dont understand why you added the factorial at ,9~
Maybe it's a != or "not equal as"
...ok didnt know this symbol. Not equal as is ~. On this thread "~" is used as the symbol of infinity, but usually infinity is the "dead 8".
And I used the ~ symbol because the "dead 8" (can't find it on my char map for the life of me) represents infinity as a number, not a quantity of something.  And, ~ looks kinda sorta not really like the line you put over a decimal to show it repeats indefinitely.
Bertster7
Confused Pothead
+1,101|6840|SE London

Onionpaste wrote:

jonsimon wrote:

(.9~)!=1. It is arbitrarily close to one. And the difference is arbitrarily close to 0. If that's all you wanted to prove, gg. End of story.
That's not what I wanted to prove.  I DID prove that .9999~ is EXACTLY 1, not arbitrarily close to 1, nor the difference arbitrarily close to 0.
It isn't though. It's just an anomaly of the mathematical system we use (not that there's another one where it wouldn't = 1). The numerical system doesn't deal with 0.99999~ very well at all. What is it? Rational? Irrational? It makes no sense. We need an entirely new mathematical system.

There we go, problem solved. Now someone come up with a new numerical system that doesn't have any nasty anomalies.

It's not that 0.9999~ = 1 it's that you can't prove the 2 numbers are distinct. But I challenge anyone to give me a practical example.

It reminds me of a (rather crap) joke one of my lecturers used to make about physicists and engineers. There is a hot woman a few feet away but the biggest step you can take towards her is half the remaining distance. The physicist would sit there pondering the impossibility of the situation and the engineer would already have taken the first few steps and grabbed her 'cos he was close enough.
Onionpaste
Member
+6|6641

-=raska=- wrote:

Onionpaste wrote:

Yaocelotl wrote:


Maybe it's a != or "not equal as"
If it is, he could always go to his character map and make the symbol understandable eh?  ≠ ftw.
no that means "is not equal to"

~ means "is almost equal to"
I was talking about the guy who used the != sign to mean not equal to, he could have used ≠, and no, ~ does not mean almost equal to in this thread.  It means the decimal repeats indefinitely.
Bertster7
Confused Pothead
+1,101|6840|SE London

-=raska=- wrote:

Onionpaste wrote:

Yaocelotl wrote:


Maybe it's a != or "not equal as"
If it is, he could always go to his character map and make the symbol understandable eh?  ≠ ftw.
no that means "is not equal to"

~ means "is almost equal to"
Aren't there two lines in the almost equal to version though? Like a wavy =?
Solid144
Member
+1|6795

Gen. Payne wrote:

I remember there was something out there that could prove 1=2. I gotta try to find that.

Found it (it is, in fact, false; try to find the error, you may get karma)

                 a = b
               ab = b²
          - (ab) = - (b²)
          a²-ab = a² - b²
         a(a-b) = (a+b) (a-b) <--- (a-b) = 0
                a = a+b <--- Division by zero, undefined.
                a = 2a
                1 = 2
Bertster7
Confused Pothead
+1,101|6840|SE London

Onionpaste wrote:

-=raska=- wrote:

Onionpaste wrote:


If it is, he could always go to his character map and make the symbol understandable eh?  ≠ ftw.
no that means "is not equal to"

~ means "is almost equal to"
I was talking about the guy who used the != sign to mean not equal to, he could have used ≠, and no, ~ does not mean almost equal to in this thread.  It means the decimal repeats indefinitely.
It does in most programming languages, that maybe why.

(!= not equal)
Des.Kmal
Member
+917|6876|Atlanta, Georgia, USA
there is no fucking way .9999999999~ = 1

dumbfucks. omfg. 1 = 1

.999999999~ = .9999999999~

but if it helps you sleep at night to think that, then by all means.........

i still see NO proof whatsoever.

Last edited by Des.Kmal (2006-11-29 16:39:07)

Add me on Origin for Battlefield 4 fun: DesKmal
l41e
Member
+677|6906

1/9 = 0.111...
2/9 = 0.222...
3/9 = 0.333...
4/9 = 0.444...
5/9 = 0.555...
6/9 = 0.666...
7/9 = 0.777...
8/9 = 0.888...
9/9 = 0.999...

And 9/9 also = 1. Therefore 0.999... = 1.

Edit: @Kmal: 0.999... is an infinitely long number. It's not a 0. followed by two nines, or five nines, or a hundred nines, or a googleplex of nines. It's infinite nines.

Last edited by k30dxedle (2006-11-29 16:40:03)

Yaocelotl
:D
+221|6908|Keyboard

Bertster7 wrote:

Onionpaste wrote:

jonsimon wrote:

(.9~)!=1. It is arbitrarily close to one. And the difference is arbitrarily close to 0. If that's all you wanted to prove, gg. End of story.
That's not what I wanted to prove.  I DID prove that .9999~ is EXACTLY 1, not arbitrarily close to 1, nor the difference arbitrarily close to 0.
It isn't though. It's just an anomaly of the mathematical system we use (not that there's another one where it wouldn't = 1). The numerical system doesn't deal with 0.99999~ very well at all. What is it? Rational? Irrational? It makes no sense. We need an entirely new mathematical system.

There we go, problem solved. Now someone come up with a new numerical system that doesn't have any nasty anomalies.

It's not that 0.9999~ = 1 it's that you can't prove the 2 numbers are distinct. But I challenge anyone to give me a practical example.

It reminds me of a (rather crap) joke one of my lecturers used to make about physicists and engineers. There is a hot woman a few feet away but the biggest step you can take towards her is half the remaining distance. The physicist would sit there pondering the impossibility of the situation and the engineer would already have taken the first few steps and grabbed her 'cos he was close enough.
LOL, so true; there is a feud between physicists and mathmaticians about this and many types of problems.
Stags
Member
+26|6914

Gen. Payne wrote:

I remember there was something out there that could prove 1=2. I gotta try to find that.

Found it (it is, in fact, false; try to find the error, you may get karma)

                 a = b
               ab = b²
          - (ab) = - (b²)
          a²-ab = a² - b²
         a(a-b) = (a+b) (a-b)
                a = a+b
                a = 2a
                1 = 2
You run into the problem where if a=b is true then in this line a(a-b) = (a+b) (a-b) you find that a-b=0 which when you multiply you get 0=0

EDIT: DAR! Solid144 beat me.

I'll get back on the 0.9999999... = 1 thing later

Last edited by Stags (2006-11-29 16:42:42)

Board footer

Privacy Policy - © 2025 Jeff Minard